Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 01.07.2025 04:39
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Can a mother forget her child after she puts him or her up for adoption?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What do you think of Tesla's Model Y coming in ninth among electric cars sales in Europe?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Rory McIlroy Says He Shot 81 at Oakmont Last Week - Sports Illustrated
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.